Forum » General » Striker cup | Date | |
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@vgates said: olumidestory said: winning the cup is enough compensation for him. Although through his action he made uplay $5 rich Not unless he buys more GB's to replace those he spent. those he spent to win the cup are they for free? Or is it that the reward of winning the cup is equivalent to or more than those he spent? If its more than, then what is the reward for winning the cup? |
21/03/2016 14:25 |
- Div/Gr | ||
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olumidestory said: @vgates said: olumidestory said: winning the cup is enough compensation for him. Although through his action he made uplay $5 rich Not unless he buys more GB's to replace those he spent. those he spent to win the cup are they for free? Or is it that the reward of winning the cup is equivalent to or more than those he spent? If its more than, then what is the reward for winning the cup? When he buys the GB's to start with, the money is transferred to Uplay whether he uses them or not. Uplay received the money then, not when he uses them. And they received the money regardless of whether he ever uses them. So Uplay received nothing for their actual use - they will only receive money if he purchases again. |
21/03/2016 21:08 |
FC need more holidays - Div4/Gr7 | ||
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@vgates said: olumidestory said: @vgates said: olumidestory said: winning the cup is enough compensation for him. Although through his action he made uplay $5 rich Not unless he buys more GB's to replace those he spent. those he spent to win the cup are they for free? Or is it that the reward of winning the cup is equivalent to or more than those he spent? If its more than, then what is the reward for winning the cup? When he buys the GB's to start with, the money is transferred to Uplay whether he uses them or not. Uplay received the money then, not when he uses them. And they received the money regardless of whether he ever uses them. So Uplay received nothing for their actual use - they will only receive money if he purchases again. since he bought GB in the first place, he made uplay rich. Because he used them, I realized he made uplay rich. Using 500 GB which is $5, made me conclude that he made uplay $5 rich. Just following the visible fact |
22/03/2016 08:56 |
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olumidestory said: @vgates said: olumidestory said: @vgates said: olumidestory said: winning the cup is enough compensation for him. Although through his action he made uplay $5 rich Not unless he buys more GB's to replace those he spent. those he spent to win the cup are they for free? Or is it that the reward of winning the cup is equivalent to or more than those he spent? If its more than, then what is the reward for winning the cup? When he buys the GB's to start with, the money is transferred to Uplay whether he uses them or not. Uplay received the money then, not when he uses them. And they received the money regardless of whether he ever uses them. So Uplay received nothing for their actual use - they will only receive money if he purchases again. since he bought GB in the first place, he made uplay rich. Because he used them, I realized he made uplay rich. Using 500 GB which is $5, made me conclude that he made uplay $5 rich. Just following the visible fact And I conclude that you guys are saying the same thing..... |
22/03/2016 09:25 |
🦊3773™ - Div2/Gr1 | ||